"Charity never
faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they
shall fail; whether there be tongues, they
shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it
shall vanish away. For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that
which is perfect is come, then that
which is in part shall be done away," (1 Cor.
13:8-10).
The logical and
long-standing application of the word "perfect" in this verse has
come under a lot of scrutiny over the past 100 years or so as denominational doctrines evolve, during which time
the meaning has undergone a radical transformation from referring to the growth
of the church, from infancy, to its "manhood" or "completed" stage, i.e., the reception of the kingdom in its fullness, which was about to happen (Heb.10:1), to
referring to Jesus, Heaven, and the assumed 'end of time.'
"Perfect" comes
from the Greek term "teleios" which Thayer defines as, " 1) brought to its end, finished;
2) wanting nothing necessary to completeness; 3) perfect; 4) that which is
perfect; 4a) consummate human integrity and virtue; 4b) of men; 4b1) full
grown, adult, of full age, mature." Thayer gives us the definition of the
term, as well as his opinion on what it means in various passages, however, his
"opinion" is not inspired, and everyone would do well to recognize
the difference between doctrinal opinion and the inspired Word of God.
Strong's Concordance defines
the term "teleios"
thusly: "From
G5056; complete (in various applications of labor, growth, mental and
moral character, etc.); neuter (as noun, with G3588) completeness: - of
full age, man, perfect."
"This word commonly means
'finished, complete, pure, holy.' Originally, it is applied to a piece of
mechanism, as a machine that is complete in its parts. Applied to people, it
refers to completeness of parts, or perfection, where no part is defective or
wanting," (Barnes).
A simple search reveals that this Greek word "teleios" occurs 19 times in 17 verses in the New
Testament, and not once does it refer to Heaven. Furthermore, it doesn't
require a PhD in Greek and/or Theology to ascertain what Paul is referring to
in this passage.
"For this cause
have I sent unto you Timotheus, who is my beloved son, and faithful in the
Lord, who shall bring you into remembrance of my ways which be in Christ, as I teach every where in
every church," (1 Cor. 4:17).
Remembering then that Paul taught the same thing
everywhere in every church, the best way to define this word is to compare 1 Cor. 12:28-31 & 13:8-13 to the parallel
teaching found in Paul's epistle to the Ephesians, and allow scripture to
interpret scripture.
Eph. 4:8 "Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led
captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men... 11 And he gave some, apostles; and some,
prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; 12 For the
perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the
body of Christ: 13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge
of the Son of God, unto a perfect man,
unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ: 14 That we
henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every
wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they
lie in wait to deceive; 15 But speaking the truth in love, may grow up
into him in all things, which is the head, even Christ:"
Lest anyone should doubt that Paul is expounding upon the same topic,
compare:
"And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some,
evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers," (Eph. 4:11);
"And God hath set
some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers,
after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of
tongues," (1 Cor.12:28).
"Till we all come
in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a
"perfect" man..." (Eph. 4:13);
"But when that which is "perfect"
is come, then that which is in part shall be done away," (1 Cor.13:10).
Harmonizing the two texts
leaves no doubt that Paul is teaching the Ephesians what he taught the
Corinthians, and he uses the same term (teleios) rendered "perfect"
in both texts. So then, allowing scripture
to interpret scripture, what is the context?
1) When Christ ascended, He
"gave gifts unto men," (verse 8). Notice here, "gifts," NOT "gift"! He gave a plurality of gifts
when He ascended. If there were no
differing measures of the Holy Spirit, and anybody & everybody throughout
the infancy of the church received the "baptism" (singular)
of the Holy Ghost, why does Paul say Christ gave "gifts"
(plural) when He ascended??
2) verse 11 "And he gave some, apostles; and some,
prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;" 12 [the
purpose]→ a) "For the perfecting of the saints;" b)
→"for the work of the ministry;" c) →"for
the edifying of the body of Christ:" 13
"Till" ←[the duration] a) "we all come in
the →unity of the faith,←" [one baptism] "and of
the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect
MAN" [not Heaven], "unto the measure of the stature of
the fulness of Christ:" 14 [the
purpose]→ "That we henceforth be no more children..."
(but when I became a man, I put away childish things). Notice that Paul uses
the word "Till," a word which expresses a point of termination. "When" we all come in the
"unity of the faith." Paul had said nearly in the same breath,
"Endeavoring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace.
There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one
hope of your calling; One Lord, one
faith, one baptism," (Eph. 4:3-5). Holy Ghost baptism was a promise, not a
commandment. Water baptism is a commandment, not a promise. If Holy Ghost baptism continues today, then
there are 2 baptisms, not 1 as "unity" demands.
3) verse 15 "But speaking the truth in love, may"
[the purpose]→"grow up← into him in all things..."
It is abundantly clear that
Paul is teaching, 1) the same thing in both epistles, 2) things which pertain
to "growth" i.e., the church's "growth" out of childhood
unto spiritual "maturity," 3) and when that came to pass, those
things which were in "part" (supernatural knowledge, prophesy &
tongues) would cease.
Paul uses this word "teleios" early in his epistle:
"Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect..." (1 Cor.2:6)
where it certainly does not refer to Heaven.
Looking further, Paul uses
this word again in: 1 Cor. 14:20 "Brethren, be not children in
understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men." Here again, it has the
specific meaning of "grow up and quit acting like
children!"
"Brethren, I count
not myself to have apprehended: but this one
thing I do, forgetting those things which are
behind, and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press toward the mark for the prize of the
high calling of God in Christ Jesus. Let us therefore, as many
as be perfect, be thus minded..." (Philippians 3:13-15).
"Whom we preach, warning
every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man
perfect in Christ Jesus:" (Col.1:28).
"Epaphras, who is
one of you, a servant of Christ, saluteth you, always labouring fervently for
you in prayers, that ye may stand perfect
and complete in all the will of God," (Col.4:12).
Does perfect refer to Heaven? Not if you
accept what the Bible says!
"But strong meat
belongeth to them that are of full age"
(Heb.5:14).
Heaven? Not if you accept
what the Bible says instead of some man's indoctrinated opinion. When we consider the words of the apostle Paul in 1 Cor. 13:8-13, one cannot walk away from this illustration without thinking that the Holy Spirit is telling the Corinthians that the spiritual gifts belonged to the childhood phase of the church/kingdom, when this new nation was in its infancy (Isa.66:6ff), and therefore, spiritual gifts are not a sign of "spiritual elitism," but rather they infer that something was missing, or not yet complete.